2024.2 Day 1 VIVA 10
Peri-operative Medicine
You are called to the ED to provide procedural sedation for a 75-year-old male who presented following a fall at home. He has a dislocated left shoulder requiring relocation. His weight is 90kg (BMI=30). His past history includes Ischaemic Heart Disease, Hypertension, and Hyperlipidaemia. His medications are: Aspirin 100mg, Irbesartan 150mg, Rosuvastatin 40mg daily. His vital signs are: Alert and talking but disoriented, Heart Rate = 150, Respiratory Rate = 25, Blood pressure = 80/50, Oxygen saturation = 100% on Hudson mask at 6 L/min. ECG – ventricular tachycardia, rate 150 bpm. He has already received 150mg of Amiodarone.
What are the key elements of your assessment of this patient?
Primary Survey (ABCDE):
Airway: Patent but at risk (disoriented, potential aspiration)
Breathing: Tachypnoeic (RR 25) but SpO₂ 100% - monitor for fatigue
Circulation:
Unstable VT (HR 150, BP 80/50) → prepare for synchronized DC cardioversion (200J)
Large bore IV access, draw bloods (FBC, UEC, troponin, VBG)
Fluid challenge (250ml crystalloid) + vasopressor ready (metaraminol)
Disability: GCS assessment (disoriented - consider head injury)
Exposure: Check for trauma (pelvis, long bones)
Secondary Assessment:
Cardiac: Ischaemia? (IHD history, check ECG for STEMI)
Sedation Risk: Elderly, unstable, polypharmacy → high risk for complications
Shoulder Relocation: Can wait until haemodynamically stable
Common Pitfalls:
Delaying cardioversion for more amiodarone
Missing occult bleeding (especially with aspirin use)
Underestimating aspiration risk
Walk me through your decision-making process for managing this unstable VT
This is a time-critical emergency requiring immediate intervention. The key features making this unstable VT are:
SBP <90 mmHg with evidence of poor perfusion (tachycardia, disorientation)
Failed chemical cardioversion with amiodarone 150mg
My immediate actions would be:
Prepare for synchronized DC cardioversion at 200J while continuing CPR as needed
Ensure adequate IV access and draw emergency bloods
*Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask*
*Have vasopressors drawn up (metaraminol 0.5mg boluses) for post-cardioversion hypotension*
I would not delay cardioversion for further amiodarone in this unstable patient
How would you comprehensively assess for potential causes of this patient's instability?
I would consider:
Cardiac causes:
Acute coronary syndrome (check ECG for STEMI, troponin)
Structural heart disease (known IHD)
Hypovolaemia:
Trauma from fall (pelvic/abdominal bleeding)
GI bleed (on aspirin)
Other causes:
PE (unlikely with this presentation)
Sepsis (check temperature, WCC)
In Scenarioville, without immediate CT availability, I would rely on:
Clinical examination for trauma
Bedside ultrasound if available
Trend in Hb and lactate
Discuss your approach to airway management in this scenario
This patient has multiple risk factors for airway compromise:
Elderly
Reduced GCS
Full stomach (recent trauma)
Potential for hemodynamic collapse
My approach would be:
Prepare for RSI with backup plan for failed intubation
Have suction ready and position optimally
*Choose induction agents carefully (e.g., ketamine 1-2mg/kg for hemodynamic stability)*
Have second operator available for cricoid pressure
In Scenarioville's resource-limited setting, I would:
Ensure all emergency airway equipment is checked and ready
Have a plan for surgical airway if needed
How would you modify your management knowing retrieval to tertiary care takes 2 hours?
This significantly impacts my decision-making:
I would be more aggressive with initial stabilization
Have lower threshold for intubation given prolonged transfer times
Ensure all necessary interventions are done before transfer (e.g., adequate vascular access, stable airway)
Administer any time-critical medications (e.g., antibiotics for open fracture) before retrieval team arrives
I would also:
Contact retrieval team early for advice
Prepare comprehensive handover including all interventions and responses
What specific challenges does this patient's age and comorbidities present?
Key considerations for this 75-year-old with multiple comorbidities:
Reduced physiological reserve: Less tolerant of hypotension/hypoxia
Polypharmacy: Potential drug interactions (especially with amiodarone)
Atherosclerosis: Higher risk of end-organ damage from hypotension
Reduced drug clearance: More sensitive to sedatives/analgesics
My modifications would include:
More cautious fluid administration
Lower dosing of sedatives/analgesics with careful titration
Enhanced monitoring for end-organ perfusion
The VT has resolved after cardioversion (SR, BP now 110/70). How will you proceed with shoulder reduction?
Sedation Plan (ANZCA PS08):
Goal: Minimal effective sedation - titrate to response
Agents:
Fentanyl 25-50mcg aliquots + midazolam 0.5-1mg (caution in elderly)
Alternative: Ketamine 0.5mg/kg (haemodynamically neutral)
Monitoring:
ECG, SpO₂, NIBP, ETCO₂ (capnography essential)
Consider arterial line if ongoing instability
Airway Management:
Have RSI kit ready (unpredictable responses in elderly)
Avoid deep sedation → risk of aspiration
Reduction Technique:
Coordinate with ED team for quick, efficient reduction
Consider intra-articular lidocaine if sedation inadequate
Common Pitfalls:
Over-sedating elderly patients
Omitting capnography → missing respiratory depression
Failing to prepare for GA conversion
Detail your pharmacological approach to sedation in this high-risk patient
For this elderly patient with recent cardiac instability, I would use:
Opioid: Fentanyl 25mcg aliquots (max 1-1.5mcg/kg) - titrated to effect
Rationale: Short-acting, less histamine release than morphine
Sedative: Midazolam 0.5mg aliquots (max 2mg total)
Rationale: Titratable, reversible with flumazenil
Alternative: Ketamine 0.5mg/kg bolus + 10mg aliquots
Advantages: Maintains airway reflexes, hemodynamic stability
Disadvantages: Potential emergence phenomena
Critical monitoring would include:
Capnography for early detection of respiratory depression
Continuous ECG for arrhythmia detection
Frequent BP measurements (at least every 3 minutes)
Discuss the pros and cons of different reduction techniques in this context
Traditional sedation + reduction:
Pros: Familiar to ED staff, doesn't require paralysis
Cons: Higher risk of respiratory depression in elderly
Intra-articular lidocaine:
Pros: Avoids systemic sedation
Cons: May be insufficient analgesia for reduction
GA with muscle relaxation:
Pros: Optimal conditions for reduction
Cons: Requires intubation, higher risk in unstable patient
For this patient, I would recommend:
Titrated sedation with fentanyl/ketamine
Have GA backup available
Consider adding intra-articular lidocaine as adjunct
How would you manage a scenario where the patient becomes hypotensive during reduction?
Immediate actions:
Stop procedure and call for help
Administer 100% oxygen
Fluid bolus (250ml crystalloid)
Vasopressor (metaraminol 0.5mg IV)
Simultaneously assess for:
Over-sedation (check respiratory rate, ETCO₂)
Occult bleeding (check surgical site, Hb trend)
Arrhythmia recurrence (check ECG)
If unresolved:
Consider GA with intubation
Prepare for transfer to higher level care
What specific equipment checks would you perform before starting?
Essential equipment checks:
Working suction tested
Airway trolley with all difficult airway equipment
Emergency drugs drawn up (including flumazenil, naloxone)
Defibrillator charged and pads attached
Oxygen supply checked (adequate for procedure + potential transfer)
In Scenarioville's resource-limited setting, I would additionally:
Confirm backup power sources
Check availability of senior help
Ensure retrieval team is aware of impending procedure
How would you modify your approach if the shoulder was open/dislocated for >6 hours?
This changes the urgency and risk-benefit analysis:
Higher risk of:
Neurovascular injury
Avascular necrosis
Reduction difficulty
My modified approach would include:
More comprehensive neurovascular exam pre-reduction
Lower threshold for GA with muscle relaxation
Consider orthopedic consultation
Post-reduction X-ray mandatory
Admission for observation likely needed
Post-reduction, the patient is agitated and confused. How will you manage this?
Differential Diagnosis:
Hypoxia (check SpO₂, ABG)
Drug effects (opioids/benzodiazepines)
Metabolic (hypoglycaemia, electrolytes)
Intracranial injury (fall history)
Management:
Immediate:
Check glucose, SpO₂
Consider naloxone 40mcg aliquots if opioid toxicity suspected
Pharmacological:
Haloperidol 0.5mg IV (avoid benzodiazepines in elderly)
Investigations:
CT head if focal signs (Scenarioville may need retrieval for this)
Discharge Planning:
Must have responsible adult escort
Document delirium for future procedures
Follow-up arranged for cardiac review
Common Pitfalls:
Assuming "just delirium" without excluding life threats
Discharging without proper escort
Over-sedating with benzodiazepines
Take me through your systematic approach to post-procedural agitation
My approach would be:
Primary survey (ABCDE): Ensure no immediate life threats
Focused history:
Timeline of agitation onset
Recent medication administration
Any witnessed seizure activity
Targeted examination:
Neurological exam (focal signs?)
Signs of opioid toxicity (pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression)
Evidence of trauma
Investigations:
Bedside glucose
ABG/VBG (pH, lactate)
ECG (QT prolongation?)
Management:
Treat reversible causes first
Pharmacological intervention only if necessary
How would you differentiate between drug-induced delirium and intracranial pathology?
Key differentiating features:
Drug-induced:
Temporal relationship to medication administration
Associated signs (miosis with opioids, nystagmus with ketamine)
Improves with reversal agents
Intracranial pathology:
Focal neurological signs
Persistent/recurrent vomiting
Progressive deterioration
In Scenarioville, without immediate CT:
I would have low threshold for retrieval if any red flags present
Monitor closely for signs of herniation
Discuss your pharmacological options for managing agitation in this elderly patient
First-line: Non-pharmacological measures (reorientation, family presence)
If pharmacological treatment needed:
Haloperidol 0.5mg IV:
Advantages: Minimal respiratory depression
Risks: QT prolongation, extrapyramidal effects
Avoid:
Benzodiazepines (paradoxical agitation in elderly)
Typical antipsychotics in Parkinson's disease
Special considerations:
Reduced dosing in elderly
Cardiac monitoring (especially with haloperidol)
Frequent reassessment
What would be your absolute contraindications to discharge in this patient?
Absolute contraindications would include:
Ongoing confusion/disorientation
Unstable vital signs
Inadequate pain control
No responsible adult available for escort
Concerns about intracranial pathology
Recurrent arrhythmias
In Scenarioville's context, I would be particularly cautious about:
Patients living alone in remote areas
Lack of follow-up options
Limited access to emergency care
How would you document and communicate this event to prevent future complications?
Comprehensive documentation should include:
Detailed timeline of events
All medications administered (doses, times)
Patient response to interventions
Differential diagnosis considered
Discharge instructions and follow-up plan
Communication strategies:
Clear handover to receiving team
Documentation in "alert" section of medical record
Discussion with patient's GP
Consider medicolegal documentation if adverse outcome
For future procedures:
Flag in records as "high risk for delirium"
Recommend pre-op geriatric assessment
Suggest alternative sedation strategies
Key Learning Points
Life-threatening arrhythmias require immediate cardioversion in unstable patients
Elderly patients need modified sedation approaches (lower doses, careful titration)
Post-procedural agitation requires systematic assessment to exclude serious causes
Resource-limited settings demand pragmatic solutions without compromising safety
Comprehensive documentation is essential for medicolegal protection and future care
Critical Phrases for Examiners
"This meets criteria for immediate synchronized cardioversion"
"Capnography is non-negotiable for procedural sedation in high-risk patients"
"I would not discharge without ensuring adequate supervision given this patient's risk factors"
Last updated